יז ובדברים מי קאי באבל והתניא
17 — Resh Lakish can answer you: I [certainly] did not state [my view] on the basis of R. Simeon's opinion, but according to the Rabbis. Now, as for Resh Lakish, it is well: for precisely therein do R. Simeon and the Rabbis differ.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' R. Simeon maintaining that the delivery of money consummates the sale by Biblical law, and therefore the vendee cannot retract, whilst in the view of the Rabbis meshikah is a Scriptural requisite, and therefore both the vendor and the vendee can retract. ');"><sup>31</sup></span> But according to R. Johanan, wherein do R. Simeon and the Rabbis differ? — In respect to R. Hisda's dictum, viz.: Just as they [sc. the Rabbis] enacted the law of <i>meshikah</i> in respect of the vendor, so did they institute it in respect to the vendee.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Probably on the score of equitableness. For, notwithstanding the reasoning stated on p. 283. n. II (q.v.), there would be a distinct feeling of unfairness if only one could retract and not the other, e.g. if the price rose or fell. ');"><sup>32</sup></span> Thus, R. Simeon rejects this dictum of R. Hisda, whilst the Rabbis agree therewith. We learnt: BUT THEY [SC. THE SAGES] SAID: HE WHO PUNISHED THE GENERATION OF THE FLOOD AND THE GENERATION OF THE DISPERSION, HE WILL TAKE VENGEANCE OF HIM WHO DOES NOT STAND BY HIS WORD. Now, if you say that the delivery of money effects a title, it is well: hence he is subject to the 'BUT etc.'. If, however, you maintain that money does not effect a title, why is he subject to 'BUT'?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' How is this action in retracting in any way reprehensible, seeing that the sale is not complete at all? ');"><sup>33</sup></span> — On account of his words.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' I.e., it is morally wrong to withdraw from an agreement even if it lacks legal force. ');"><sup>34</sup></span> But is one subject to 'BUT' on account of [mere] words? Has it not been taught: